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                       In its main form it ALWAYS refers to God (Yehovah) -- AND NO ONE ELSE. Notes
               Strong's Concordance: "...an emphatic form of 113; the 'Lord' (used as a proper name of God
               ONLY) (#136)."

                       In this form (according to the accepted "translators' convention") it ALWAYS appears in
               English as "Lord" with an upper case "L".

                       It should be pointed out that the main form of "Adonai" has a different vowel point under
               the "N" to distinguish it from the second much less common form of the word that is used in the
               plural and means "of men."

               4) ADONI


                       This Hebrew word is formed by adding the suffix "i" to "adon." With this suffix it means
               "my lord," or sometimes "master."


                       It appears 195 times in the Bible and almost entirely refers to HUMAN LORDS -- and very
               occasionally of angels. When translated "lord," it always appears with a lower case "l" -- except,
               unfortunately, for the ONE TIME in Psalm 110:1!


                       Due to a lack of knowledge of the original Hebrew, many have incorrectly assumed that the
               second "lord" in Psalm 110:1 is ADONAI -- which ALWAYS refers to God (Yehovah). This has
               further led to the INCORRECT assumption that this verse is a "proof text" that Jesus Christ was the
               Yehovah or YHVH of the Old Testament! Nothing could be further from the truth! We have just
               seen that the actual Hebrew word used is ADONI, which refers to HUMAN lords. It speaks of the
               HUMANITY of Jesus -- not the Deity of Yehovah.


                       If we study the New Testament texts that quote Psalm 110, we will clearly see this to be
               true. Let's start with Matthew 22:41 --

                       Now while the Pharisees were gathered together Jesus asked them: "What do you think
                       about the Christ? Whose son is he?" They said to him: "David's." He said to them: "How,
                       then, is it that David by inspiration calls him 'lord,' saying, "Jehovah [Yehovah] said to
                       my lord: 'Sit at my right hand until I put your enemies beneath your feet.'" If, therefore,
                       David calls him "lord," how is he his son?" (Verses 41-45, The Kingdom Interlinear
                       Translation of the Greek Scriptures).

                       Turning now to Mark 12:36 we read:


                       By the holy spirit David himself said, "Jehovah [Yehovah] said to my lord: 'Sit at my
                       right hand until I put your enemies beneath your feet.'" David himself calls him "lord,"
                       but how does it come that he is his son? (Verses 36-37).


                       Also, in Luke 20:42 --




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